Talk:Voiceless retroflex fricative

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"Puʂʂy. Puʂʂy galore." -"Sean Connery" on Late Night with Conan O'Brien lysdexia 13:24, 29 Nov 2004 (UTC)

[edit] Castillian Spanish Example

Is "s" really a voiceless retroflex fricative? I've always thought it was a voiceless apico-alveolar sibilant, but I may be misinformed. Also, the example [dɔʐ], has ʐ, doesn't that mean it should be in the ʐ article instead? I didn't want to edit anything without being sure of anything. --Sergio Á.(nodoubt9203) ^{|talk to me|} 15:59, 15 August 2006 (UTC)

Actually you're right. The tongue doesn't usually go back that far, but it can serve as an allophone in some regions. —The preceding unsigned comment was added by Nimic86 (talk • contribs) 04:50, 13 September 2006 (UTC) .

That's what I thought! :D Thanks --Sergiusz Szczebrzeszyński ^{|talk to me||what i've done||e|} 02:24, 13 September 2006 (UTC)

[edit] Usage in German

For some reason everyone recognizes that there are two "hard ch" sounds in German ([χ] and [x]) but there is no acknowledgment that the "soft ch" [ç] is often reduced to [ʂ] or even [ʃ] in many dialects in NRW and in almost every German's fast-speech. The reason being is that [ç] is not always comfortable to pronounce quickly and effectively with an every-day tempo. It's much the same idea with American English reducing the [t] sound in words like "butter" to a flap or tap. Sorry I didn't put this in the notes when I changed it today. ·:RedAugust 19:49, 4 August 2007 (UTC)