Talk:Universally measurable set

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[edit] Finiteness condition

So it seems I goofed in my first definition; looking around, everyone seems to impose some finiteness condition on the measure. Does this actually matter? Can someone cook up a universally measurable set of reals that's not measurable with respect to, say, Hausdorff measure of dimension 1/2 ? --Trovatore 16:27, 3 October 2005 (UTC)

You asked me to comment on this. Unfortunately, my set theoretic knowledge is rather limited. In particular, I don't know what Polish spaces or analytic sets are. So, can't help much. Oleg Alexandrov 03:55, 4 October 2005 (UTC)