Talk:Ocular dominance

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"Approximately two-thirds of the population is right-eye dominant" I'm not completeky certain this is totally true... out of the 20 ppl I surveyed (sci project) 9 were 'right-eyed'(3 were lefties, 4 were righties, 2 were lefty turned righties) while 11 were 'left-eyed'(all were righties). I figured that if you're a lefty, then your right eye is dominant and when you're a righty, your left eye is dominant (with a few exceptions)<=cross-dominance. Is there some kind of explanation...?... ~Sushi 07:48, 19 July 2006 (UTC)

My own experience with patients mirrors the figures cited in the article. Perhaps your results are due to a small sample size or some other anomaly (i.e. type of dominance test used, subjects not "blinded", etc.). -AED 05:10, 22 July 2006 (UTC)

I tried several of the methods for testing eye dominance and after about 20 tries I came out right eye dominant 45% and left eye dominant 55%. Not enough of a difference to say which I am. I think those tests are a farce. When I viewed the distant object through the "hole" in the different variations of the tests the results of the test only depended on which eye, by chance, saw the object first. I am especially intrigued about this because when I look through my new telescope I can see much better through my left eye but it seems very uncomfortable to do so. It seems much more natural to look through my right eye which makes me think that I am right eye dominant even though my left eye can see better.—The preceding unsigned comment was added by 66.214.20.85 (talk • contribs) 09:06, 9 August 2006 (UTC).

I took the Miles Test, and I tested out left eyed every time. I also use my left eye to look through telescopes with but am right handed. The Miles Test doesn't work right if done incorrectly, (when I only used one hand the dominant eye depended on which hand I was holding up). I tried the Porta Test too, and it doesn't work at all. —The preceding unsigned comment was added by 71.116.91.171 (talk • contribs) .

[edit] errors maybe?

This is out of my area of competence, so i'll leave it to someone else to do:

1) in the last sentence before the References, should "Forced choice" tests dominance, have an "of" after tests?

2) Is this statement the wrong way round?

In those with anisometropic myopia (i.e. different amounts of nearsightedness between the two eyes), the dominant eye has been found to be the one with more myopia[11][12].

(My dominant eye is the less myopic, but maybe that's just randomness.)

Coughinink 07:39, 21 September 2006 (UTC)

Regarding the first point, you are correct that "of" was missing. Regarding your second point, the sentence is correct as written. One of the sources ([1] helps to explain why that is. -AED 16:09, 21 September 2006 (UTC)

I don't agree that sentence about myopia is true either. I have ansiometropic myopia where the more myopic eye had changed over the years, but I have always been left eyed.—The preceding unsigned comment was added by 209.68.148.253 (talkcontribs) 6 October 2006 (UTC).

As Coughinink suggested, I think your finding could be attributed to randomness and sample size. I'm not sure that your personal experience of n=1 is sufficient to refute the two studies referenced in the article. -AED 16:01, 6 October 2006 (UTC)

[edit] What about spectrum and distance dominance?

My right eye is dominant towards the red spectrum. My left eye tends towards the green/blue. Similarly, what about distance dominance? My right eye is dominant for far distances while my left is dominant at near ranges. Is my distance dominance due to chromatic dominance, since indoor fluorescent lighting tends toward green? So indoors, my right eye becomes lazy. Have any of you optometrists anything to write about chromatic and distance dominance?

Miamidot 15:50, 21 June 2007 (UTC)

[edit] Neither eye is dominant

This regards the statement in line 1 of the second paragraph stating "in a small portion of the population neither eye is dominant". I got to this page because that is the exact info I was looking for. I guess it hasn't been fully expounded on.

All I can offer on the subject is anecdotal and pertains to me, personally.

I've done all/many of the things that supposedly allow one to determine eye dominance -- make a small hole by holding the hands together and bring it to an eye; similarly, look thru a small hole in a piece of paper; point at something with a finger and see which eye is looking down the finger; hold a thumb up, close an eye and see whether it moves or disappears. None of that works for me. I see two holes formed by the hands, two holes in the piece of paper, two thumbs, two fingers pointing, etc.

Anyone else see things the way I do and are unable to determine a dominant eye?

Thanks.