Talk:Mizrahi Hebrew
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[edit] Yemenite Hebrew
My page about Hebrew pronunciation, with Yemenite Hebrew focus.
http://e.domaindlx.com/hebrewtalk/hebrewtalk.htm
[edit] Mizrahi Hebrew
I'm under the impression that there is both a LITURGICAL Mizrahi Hebrew and a Mizrahi Hebrew used in everyday speech.
The problem is, everything i've been able to find on this whole topic so far is rather vague and confusing.
Gringo300 10:34, 8 October 2005 (UTC)
[edit] "Mizrahi Hebrew?"
It seems like the term "Mizrahi Hebrew" is highly over-generalized and insensitive. Does it ever come into use? Aucaman 11:09, 25 October 2005 (UTC)
- It could be argued that the term "American English" is also "over-generalized and insensitive". Among Americans, there are dialect differences between Northerners, Southerners, Westerners, Easterners, etc. and those could be broken down into further dialects and so on. Gringo300 07:03, 6 November 2005 (UTC)
[edit] Hebrew naming conventions
Urgent: see Wikipedia:Naming conventions (Hebrew) to add your opinions about this important matter. Thank you. IZAK 18:12, 11 November 2005 (UTC)
[edit] Bet vs. vet; Arabic vs. Spanish
I have moved User:TShilo12's note here from the Syrian Jews article, but I am still not convinced by it.
Lack of differentiation between bet dagesh and bet raphe is more likely to be an Arabic influence than a Spanish influence, as Arabic has no /v/ sound. So if there was any change in Arabic-speaking countries after 1492, it is more likely to have been from /b/ to /v/ than from /v/ to /b/. /b/ pronunciations tend to be found in places like Iraq with few Sephardi immigrants, while /v/ is found in Morocco where there were many.
As for Spanish, it is correct that the distinction between /b/ and /β/ is now purely a function of position and is not regarded as making a phonemic difference. The same is in fact true in Hebrew: bet and vet are alphabetically and etymologically the same letter, and the pronunciation is determined by position: the dagesh is just a reading aid to show that where this happens.
However, it was not true in medieval Spanish, and is not true today in Ladino, where "b" and "v" are distinct letters (and, incidentally, "v" is labio-dental as in English, not bilabial as in modern Spanish). Sephardim themselves vary: /v/ was used in Greece and Turkey, while /b/ was used in England and Holland, no doubt because they were influenced by modern Spanish rather than Ladino.
So I think TShilo12's paragraph has things the wrong way round; partly because it assumes that the modern pronunciation must have been the "real" or "original" pronunciation, so that it is necessarily the /b/ rather than the /v/ pronunciation that requires explanation.--Sir Myles na Gopaleen (the da) (talk) 10:18, 10 March 2008 (UTC)
