Talk:Menahem Mendel Beilis

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Contents

[edit] Land of Israel or Palestine

Jews make aliyah to the Land of Israel. In 135, Hadrian renamed Judea into Palestina, but an independent country under such name never existed. Today, the term Palestine carries very different political connotations. I don't understand the anon's insistence on using Palestine instead of Land of Israel. ←Humus sapiens ну? 09:08, 12 June 2006 (UTC)

Hmmm... Sounds fishy... Ilikefood 22:53, 25 September 2006 (UTC)

See below. --Anonymous44 22:04, 5 March 2007 (UTC)

[edit] Where did Beiliss emigrate to??

NPOV should be Palestine, I think. —The preceding unsigned comment was added by 129.128.235.42 (talk) 23:09, 6 February 2007 (UTC).

This is the anon that put in the edit summary "Arz-i Filistin". The section above has the answer. Thanks. ←Humus sapiens ну? 09:46, 7 February 2007 (UTC)
And now it's going to be a non-anon. My reasons:
  1. The commonly accepted term at the time was "Palestine", as apparent in the literature.
  2. To most Jews, it might be "The Land of Israel", but most other nations called the region "Palestine". Wikipedia is for all nations.
  3. As pointed out on the talk page of aliyah, even Jews called it "Palestine" at the time (at least when writing in languages other than Hebrew). An example is the article in The Jewish Encyclopedia.
  4. "The Land of Israel" has very special connotations and is connected to the traditional Jewish religious view of the area as the promised land. Palestine, in contrast, is a neutral geographic term. The difference is similar to the one between calling Jesus "Jesus Christ" and "The King of Kings / The Lord / Our Savior" - the first is a neutral word, suitable for wikipedia, and one which can refer to the historical person as well as to Christian views of him. The rest are specifically Christian, designate Christian views of Jesus and are hence unsuitable. In particular, Muslims regard Jesus as a prophet and not a God; and some people, including most Palestinians, regard at least parts of "The Land of Israel" as their own land (not Israel's). Hence, using the "group-internal" names would seem to endorse one religious/national POV and reject the other. Other examples would be the use of the term "The Holy Scripture", meaning "the Bible" (which - or rather, whose - "holy scripture"?), saying that the first Muslims followed "The Prophet of God" rather than Mohammed (was he really the prophet of God? to them, sure. But what about the readers?) or calling the nations that a Muslim or Christian ruler fought against "infidels/kafirs" etc. (because they were termed so from his religious perspective).
  5. The sentence itself says that he emigrated "to /countryname/, then a province of the Ottoman Empire". As the anon pointed out, there was no such province as "Land of Israel"; the Ottoman province in question was officially called "Palestine"; as was, later, the British-controlled area.
--Anonymous44 21:31, 5 March 2007 (UTC)

[edit] picture

the eyes of the people in the picture look photoshopped(to look goofy). is there a way that this can be fixed, and, more importantly, am i just halucinating? Ilikefood 22:53, 25 September 2006 (UTC)

No, you are not. It's weird. --Anonymous44 21:32, 5 March 2007 (UTC)

[edit] Separate Page

Why does the Beilis case redirect to the individual, shouldn't there be separate articles on the individual and event?Nwe 12:37, 6 September 2007 (UTC)

Because Beilis would have no notability whatsoever, if not for the Case.Galassi 15:32, 6 September 2007 (UTC)

[edit] Religous Observance

His biography seems to imply that he was an observant jew —Preceding unsigned comment added by 70.160.119.7 (talk) 02:27, 17 December 2007 (UTC)