Talk:Gorgias (dialogue)
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Perhaps 'transcendent' is better than 'transcendental' since the latter has obvious Kantian connotations and would easily lead to confusion? 70.37.8.95 17:23, 7 October 2006 (UTC)
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- "Transcendent" was also a term used by Kant. It means erroneously considering a perceived object to be an unperceived object.Lestrade 20:02, 7 October 2006 (UTC)Lestrade
I think this article is in need of a major revision. It's pretty brief, and it doesn't seem to stress the significant themes in the dialogue. Should we mark it as needing expert attention? Even Sparknotes has a much better summary. --treyjp 04:37, 16 December 2006 (UTC)
I'm with treyjp on this one. I might put it on my to do list, because it's quite lacking in discussions of the arguments (like one of the main ones on pleasure/pain vs. good/bad [495d-499a])... Rockstar915 05:48, 27 February 2007 (UTC)
Also the Sophists did not refer to themselves as "rhetoricians," as rhetorike was not even invented, either as a term or as a discipline, until after they were gone (arugably, the first instance of the term rhetorike is in Plato's Gorgias. See Schiappa (1999) for the full argument.