Talk:Consent

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Actually its not an open question....

It is an open question as to whether one may consent to giving up the right to not consent to some action. For instance, if someone says "For the next 15 minutes I give up my right to refuse to have sex with you. It is ok if I say 'No' and you go right ahead."

Roadrunner 01:16, 21 Jul 2004 (UTC)

But surely in that situation you are giving consent? "For the next 15 minutes, I give you consent to have sex with me, even if I say 'No'" —Preceding unsigned comment added by 82.21.7.64 (talk) 21:28, 26 February 2008 (UTC)

[edit] Sociocracy

In the Sociocracy talk page soemone distinguishes between consent and consensus, saying that in the latter agreement is not required. The political bit is basically a stub. What excatly is meant by it? And should this not be turned into a disambiguation page, given that the two subjects are completely (?) different?

Also, does this apply to Wikipedia? DirkvdM 07:17, 17 August 2005 (UTC)

[edit] Rape/sexual assault

I removed the reference to sexual assault because it was ambiguous. Consent is a defence against rape in the same way it's a defence against theft (we agreed to have sex; you gave me permission to use your car). So it's not an exception, at least not the way it read. Of course, sexual assault is more complex than theft, and if anyone wants to expand upon it, clearly, by all means do so.24.64.223.203 19:44, 2 October 2005 (UTC)

Need to know if "tortious interference with contract" can be used as related to marriage. Ex: Wife leaves husband for rich guy who was aware of marriage. Husband tells rich guy to see his way out of the relationship, but he continues to see the married woman regardless.

In this case, the marriage is the "contract", and the rich guy is knowingly interfering with the contract being fulfilled.

Someone please tell me if this is a legitimate case that could be brought before the court??? And based on experience, if you could actually win in court???

Thanks, Single Dad

Wiki is not a free legal clinic for giving advice but the answer to your question (in English law only) lies in the conversion of divorce from "fault" to "no fault". When I started off doing divorce cases back in the 1950s, you petitioned against both the "wife" and the "other man". Even further back in time, there used to be actions for loss of consortium. But with the change to "no fault", husbands lost the right to blame third parties for the breakdown in their marriages. David91 02:11, 23 February 2006 (UTC)