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Since he was King of Naples for five years, and of Hungary for only one, wouldn't it make more sense to call him Charles III of Naples? john 04:49, 6 Sep 2003 (UTC)

[edit] "Joan I was infatuated with him throughout her life"?

I don't know if there's any source for this infatuation, but if there is, we must remember that Joan suffered a biased religious press at the time. It's not the sort of analysis you expect to see in a medieval history article, to be honest.

In any case, the comment makes dubious sense in its own terms, does it not? Joan's life started in 1328 and Charles's started in 1345, seventeen years later. It's true that Joan brought him up at her court, where she could, I suppose, have become infatuated with him later on; but he would have needed to be a young man for that to happen, surely, so we're talking about 1360 at the very earliest, by which time the major part of Joan's life was in the past. So she couldn't have been *infatuated with him throughout her life".

--qp10qp 17:42, 31 July 2006 (UTC)