Talk:Cauchy's theorem (group theory)

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Mathematics rating: Start Class Mid Priority  Field: Algebra

[edit] Proof and planetmath

Someone Else: 18:28, 28 June 2007 (EST) At the end of the first paragraph of the proof, I'm not clear why hn/px has order p since (hn/px)p=hnxp=xp=h-1.

Someone Else: 12:20, 1 July 2007 (EST) I fixed the proof a couple of days ago. I don't think this entry qualifies as a stub anymore, as it now includes a full proof. I'm dropping the PlanetMath citations, as it also doesn't really incorporate information unique to PlanetMath. The statement of the theorem is ubiquitous in algebra and the proof here is not the proof from PlanetMath (which is actually a much simpler proof, so I kept the link.) —Preceding unsigned comment added by 75.69.94.54 (talk)

[edit] Unclear Proof

I don't understand this: "It is easily checked that for every element a in H there exists b in H such that bp = a," Why should this be true? 82.208.57.182 (talk) 21:44, 9 April 2008 (UTC)

At this point in the proof, H is a finite abelian group of order relatively prime to p, so there are integers u,v such that 1 = |H|u + pv. By Lagrange, a^(|H|u) is the identity, so a=a^1=a^(pv), so let b=a^v. JackSchmidt (talk) 01:06, 10 April 2008 (UTC)