Talk:Argumentum ad lazarum

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Is it correct to use this phrase for the (very common) converse, arguing that an opponent is wrong because it is rich? Securiger 09:16, 19 Apr 2005 (UTC)

No, it it's called argumentum ad crumenam. 72.139.119.165 17:32, 6 July 2006 (UTC)

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[edit] Does this even exist?

I doubt this alleged "logical fallacy" exists. Sympathy to the poor is not a logical fallacy. Wooyi 22:12, 23 March 2007 (UTC)