Talk:A Bar at the Folies-Bergère

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How do you pronounce this?

Who owns this image?

It is not ironic that a painting of a possible whore hangs in the house of an established one.

[edit]  ?

What does the last clause (part after the comma) of this sentence actually mean?: "A Bar at the Folies-Bergère is a modern version of Velazquez's Las Meninas (1656-7), the most profound meditation on the portrait. I"

(And for that matter, what's the word "I" doing there?) PiCo 12:42, 28 January 2006 (UTC)

It means that Manet's painting is the most profound meditation on Velazquez's that we know. What's unclear about that? frecklegirl 15:46, 23 February 2006 (UTC)

How is it a meditation on Las Meninas? It seems completely different to my (admittedly untutored) eye. Lisiate 22:20, 2 March 2006 (UTC)

This slightly tutored eye came to the same conclusion: But for the use of mirrors, the connection between "Folies" and "Meninas" is not very strong. The paintings differ dramatically in many ways, not the least of which is this: The Velázquez offers a magical window into the artist's life at the royal court, the Manet focuses on one blasé woman tending bar. I think the Manet is less a meditation on Velázquez than it is a creative response to Paris night life. I deleted the reference. But then, there was a lot that needed editing here.

--JNW 13:48, 8 August 2006 (UTC)

Oops. After doing a little research, I found the comparison to Las Meninas is not uncommon in the literature on this painting, so I have restored the reference. In the words of Emily Litella, 'never mind'...

JNW 20:02, 15 August 2006 (UTC)