Talk:Wishart distribution

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f_{\mathbf W}(w)= \frac{ \left|w\right|^{(n-p-1)/2} \exp\left[ - {\rm trace}({\mathbf V}^{-1}w/2 )\right] }{ 2^{np/2}\left|{\mathbf V}\right|^{n/2}\Gamma_p(n/2) }

shoud be

f_{\mathbf W}(w)= \frac{ \left|w\right|^{(n-p-1)/2} \exp\left[ - \frac{1}{2}{\rm trace}({\mathbf V}^{-1}w )\right] }{ 2^{np/2}\left|{\mathbf V}\right|^{n/2}\Gamma_p(n/2) }

?

Well, the two say exactly the same thing. Perhaps there is some reason why one way of saying it is preferable in a given context, but certainly if either is correct then so is the other. Michael Hardy 22:37, 18 March 2007 (UTC)
Thanks for comments. I confused that trace(A / x) = 1 / xptrace(A). —The preceding unsigned comment was added by 150.29.217.146 (talk) 04:09, 19 March 2007 (UTC).
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