Talk:Standing

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Is this purely a U.S. concept? The article discusses it exclusively as such, and I've never heard of it under any other country's legal system. I don't know what category to place it under. Postdlf 19:27, 30 Jul 2004 (UTC)

I placed a source comment at the head of the article to alert future editors. Ellsworth 00:35, 29 Jan 2005 (UTC)

no it's not an american concept. it's roots come from the common law. for instance the rule within the law of contract that no one but a party to the contract can sue on the back of it involves locus standi issues. also any court in any jurisdiction common or civil law charged with constitutional interpretation will question locus standi of any applicant

preceding comment added 20:05, 24 March 2006 by 136.206.1.17

I'm not at all sure that this should be dealt with as a substantive legal matter at all. It would perhaps be better dealt with as a Latin definition and broad statement of effect, leaving elaboration of its legal content to the articles requiring to refer to it since, even within the same jurisdiction, its meaning can differ. For instance, in the UK it has a narrower meaning in judicial review actions than it does in other contexts and is narrowed still further when Human Rights Act considerations are in play. Antisthenes 14:44, 26 November 2006 (UTC)

PROBLEM - The Lujan case is mis-cited. There was no majority opinion by the Court as to redressability. If you look at the opinion, Scalia's Part III-B (redressability) did not receive a majority of votes, as Justice Marshall did not take part in the opinion.