Talk:Luzin's theorem

From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

I am relatively novice student of Measure Theory, but I am confused by the moving of Lusin's theorem to Luzin's theorem as every reference I can find refers to "Lusin's theorem". Could you explain the reason for moving it to "Luzin's theorem"? Thanks.

these are just different English spellings of the same Russian name (are there other Lusin's who worked/works in related areas?), e.g. Lusin/Luzin, Tychonoff/Tihonoff, etc. Mct mht 22:20, 29 April 2006 (UTC)

To clarify: there are at least two types of romanizations current, one that is adapted to French speakers (probably more common before 1940), and one that would be used now for English speakers. These days we should definitely use 'Luzin'. The only exceptions really should be for things like Tchaikovsky (not Chaikovskii, which no one would recognise). Charles Matthews 19:52, 30 April 2006 (UTC)

[edit] Lusin-Menchoff theorem

I had a vague idea that Lusin-Menchoff theorem, which is requested, is just another name for this theorem. Can anyone confirm or deny this? Via strass 17:15, 19 July 2006 (UTC)