Talk:Henry IV of England

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When France stole the Papacy in about 1307, Rome vowed revenge. England was Rome's "Sword of Vengeance" against France -- hence, the 100 Years' War (1337-1455) which was designed to wipe France off the map. Richard II was hated for being "too soft on France", as it were... and therefore we infer that the Lords' Appellent faction which opposed Richard II was backed by Rome. This explains why the Lords' Appellent faction wanted war with France, for they were being paid by Rome for that purpose. By the 1380s, France had already been weakened enough viz-a-vis Rome that the latter again declared their own Popes (in opposition to those in France). Therefore, we might guess that Richard II's suspiciously pro-French advisors were Franco-Catholics, whereas the Lords' Appellent were Romano-Catholics. Indeed, the Welsh Rebellion of Owain (1400-1416) was backed by France against Henry IV and Henry V. And, during the same period, the Lollard's (of Wycliffe) also rebelled against Henry V. Thus, the Lords Appellent faction who backed Henry IV and V and aggressive war against France were indeed, unsurprisingly, opposed by France. Owain even offered to recognize the Avignon Pope over Rome -- which must have angered Rome. Therefore, a clear picture emerges: Lords Appellent / Henry V = Team Rome, Richard II / Owain = Team Avignon. English politics in 1400 CE was, just like all of Europe, torn between the two power centers of Rome and France. May it be noted that this is an unshocking claim, that England was just like the rest of Europe.

How could he have become the king after being Duke of Lancaster if his predecessor Richard II prevented him from inheriting the Dukedom of Lancaster? This isn't explained on the Duke of Lancaster page either, which doesn't say anything (at this time) about how Richard II prevented Henry Bolingbroke from inheriting the Dukedom of Lancaster.

My understanding is that Richard seized the lands pertaining to Lancaster on John of Gaunt's death. No action was taken to prevent Henry from receiving the title. But I'm not sure on that. Peerage references always list him as being Duke of Lancaster after his father's death. john k 15:52, 7 Feb 2005 (UTC)

Richard prevented him from returning to England, even to his father's funeral, as he was on a crusade in Baltic at that time, and also sort of exiled. The reason was that he had quarreled and apparently dueled with another lord, who was Richard's favourite and/or close relative. Richard seized the lands of deceased duke and refused to confirm the title and anything to Henry.

As he was enraged due to these, he almost immediately began the preparations of invasion. It succeeded and he captured Richard, who was forced to abdicate.

There apparently was no occasion to Henry to officially receive the Lancaster. It more or less only7 happened: when he won, no one tried to inhibit him from taking his father's inheritance, duriong the short time between his victory and Richard's abdication, which was followed by Henry's accession.

Already before his father's death, Henry was Duke of Derby. I believe that he was stripped of it when Richard forced him to abroad, to crusade.

As a style matter, I think it is rather ridiculous to word his accession as elevation of Duke to King. It is not relevant. He was what he was, and he ascended the throne. This is the neutral statement regarding his kingship. We do not need any royally-romantic list of titles, nor any artificial idea of elevation. 62.78.126.145 17:11, 24 May 2005 (UTC)

[edit] Which Mortimer?

Was it Edmund Mortimer, 5th Earl of March or Roger Mortimer, 4th Earl of March who was heir presumptive to Richard II when Bolingbroke seized the crown? The different articles on the people in question seem to imply both... Fire Star 20:33, 13 Jun 2005 (UTC)

It was definatley Edmund because Roger died in 1398.

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"and by-passing Richard’s heir-apparent Roger Mortimer" - I believe Mortimer was Heir Presumptive, not Heir Apparent; it's right in the related articles; changing it here. (preceding unsigned comment by Dispensa (talk • contribs) 22:27, 2005 October 8 (UTC))

[edit] James I

James was taken by English pirates, not soldiers. Rcpaterson 02:26, 14 May 2006 (UTC)

-- The level of royal authorisation is disputed in these kinds of raids. I would not talk about "pirates" in late medieval England as the only people rich enough to command such voyages etc were either Knights or Magnates, and so called "pirate" activities closely resembled royal policy ( for example border raids/chevauchés etc)

[edit] Katherine Swinford Relationship

I trimmed the fillowing lines from the introduction: His relationship with the Beauforts and their mother was equivocal. He expressed resentment that his former governess had taken his mother’s place, as well as the favor shown to them by their father. Upon his ascension, he revoked his half-brother’s marquessate, and passed further legal measures barring them from the throne. However, Thomas Swynford, a son from Katherine’s first marriage was a trusted and able companion. Not only is the intro a bit long, but also the claim that Henry and Katherine de Swinford didn't get along is contrary to the information provided in Anthony Goodman's book which indicated that, quite opposite to the claim above, Henry and Katherine got along swimmingly -- he even kept inviting her over for holidays after she and John of Gaunt (temporarily) broke up.--68.35.94.119 02:34, 15 March 2007 (UTC)

Jeez! If you're going to undo the change at least state your argument for doing so! Till then I've just flagged the line, but so far I have a citation for the opposite being true.--68.35.94.119 14:01, 31 March 2007 (UTC)