Talk:Francis I of France
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Among the things I removed: he threw out the vast legacy of Mediaeval prohibitions. Now you may think that I'm a cranky medievalist (and I am - I've only had one cup of coffee so far), but this is virtually meaningless. Mediaeval prohibitions? Does that refer to laws? Customs? Legal codes? Please elaborate. Were they mediaeval, or perhaps Roman? French legal history is a vast and complicated sea of change, and saying that a king 'threw out the vast legacy' of the middle ages is silly. "Renaissance," by the way, is a very mixed term. One could, and I would, argue that the two paragraphs about the economic and military disasters of Francis's reign were caused by his openness to 'humanism' and its model of the absolute ruler rather than an accident of luck or poor planning. Those "mediaeval prohibitions" sometimes had the virtue of restraining royal action. MichaelTinkler
I find what you said very interesting. This information originaly came from a much longer essay I wrote. The argument I made in this essay was that Francis' humanism was the cause of his economic and military problems. In turning the essay from an argumentative one to a expository one I cut out pretty much all of that discussion. I personally think that it was the embrace of humanism by the French monarchy that put it on the path to the behaviour that would cause the French Revolution. I didn't think this opinion was NPOV enough, however, and thus left it out. -SimonP
Before I start copyediting: in addition to easy fixes (a comma here, "renowned" there), the word "chateaux" appears in a lot of places where I suspect the singular is called for. E.g., did Saint Germain-en-Laye ever have more than one chateau? (That one caught my eye because I've been there--the surviving chateau now houses the Museum of French Prehistory.) And does anyone know whether older browsers, and lynx, handle those long codes for apostrophes and quotation marks gracefully? Vicki Rosenzweig
Oy, I did use chateaux for the singular throughout didn't I. Many years of French teachers would be very dissapointed in me. -SimonP
I've never heard of this guy referred to as Francis. If it's not John Charles of Spain, why is it Francis of France? - montréalais
- Because that's the way he's known to English speakers. We never claimed to be consistant. :-) -- Zoe
Yeah, I was a bit baffled too. It's Francois, right? What do we call Carlos of Spain -- Charles or Carlos? -- Tarquin
- He's called Juan Carlos in English (in Dutch too, btw) while Francis is not known as François. I guess the use of anglicised (localised) names for monarchs has diminished; it is only still used for non-current ones and the pope, I think. Jeronimo
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- That sounds correct. The heir is Prince Felipe, not Prince Philip. I guess he'll be Philip VI, but he'll probably be refered to as Felipe VI. -- Zoe
- Aargh! Even worse -- I would say either Francis or Francois is correct -- leaning towards Francis, because I just looked in Spitz's The Renaissance and Reformation Movements, Lockyer's Tudor and Stuart Britain, 1471-1714, and Smith's The Making of England. And even if TODAY we call the heir Felipe (and he'll probably be Felipe VI), we still call his most famous (arguably) ancestor Philip II. Go figure.
- That sounds correct. The heir is Prince Felipe, not Prince Philip. I guess he'll be Philip VI, but he'll probably be refered to as Felipe VI. -- Zoe
Like I said before -- it was Frederick William when I was in high school, but it's Friedrich Wilhelm now...As we English speakers try to become more culturally aware, we're going to get these changes. i don't think it's a big problem, as long as the article is in the most normal form -- we can create re-direct pages, and even swap content and redirects in future. Ah, the beauty of wiki. HK 14:47 Aug 13, 2002 (PDT)
It makes no sense to call someone "Francis" when in fact they are born and legally baptized as "François". And, anyone who has studied any amount of French history, refers only to him as François. But then again, being from France, maybe I should go change everything to "Georges Bush" and "Guillaume Clinton" etc ? ... DW
[edit] Failed imperial candidacy
Does anyone know anything more about Francis' bid to become Holy Roman Emperor? I've heard this mentioned elsewhere (in passing, as in this article). It seems an intriguingly odd ambition on his part, as the rulers of Germany would have had several centuries worth of tradition in holding the title. Was there any chance that the electors might have chosen him? Was the fact that his rival Charles V was a "Spaniard" (not really, of course, but he did live in Spain by this time, I believe) a factor? --Jfruh 7 July 2005 15:24 (UTC)
Why exactly has no one, to this point, mentioned the Concordat of Bologna? It's arguably one of Francis I's greatest achievements...control over the Church is nothing to be sneezed at.
A treatise on Fencing (By G. Hale Gent, 1614) mentions thet Frances I challenged Emperor Charles to a duel.
http://www.thehaca.com/Manuals/FullPSoDtext.htm
"The Second is, Publique good abroad, for avoyding bloud, if the State of a War should require a single Tryall, which howsoever was presumption in Goliath, was true valor in David: the imitation of this example, hath beene frequent in great Persons in forraigne, and memorable in our owne Country: as betweene Edmund, surnamed Ironside, and King Canute, to a happy issue. Neyther can I forget an offer in the same kinde made in more late yeeres, betweene Frances the first, King of France, and Charles the fift, Emperour, though without effect."
[edit] Sons
I was told that he left his sons as token hostages in Medinaceli when he was freed from Spain. However, since he refused to comply with his ransom, what happened to the sons?
I believe they were kept in captivity until the Treaty of Cambrai in 1529. john k 00:13, 28 July 2006 (UTC)
[edit] Francis ?
"Francis" is also a french name, like "françois". But "francis" really don't suit to a king (it sounds pejorative imo). Why don't keep his french name ? 213.103.243.191 21:08, 4 December 2006 (UTC)
