User talk:Corticopia
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on your talk page and ask your question there. Again, welcome! Rklawton 17:26, 14 January 2007 (UTC)
[edit] RE:North America
Yes, like I had told Jim, we were both (him and I) making interpretations (or judgements) on the sources (whether it is disqualifying or qualifying the prevalence of or motives behind the phrase), and, in my opinion, since we are no experts in the matter, we could be both right or wrong, and the only fact that still remains is that it is used, whether out of diplomacy, mistranslation, or conscious inclusion of the term in Academic papers. Unlike MA and MesoAm, I wasn't suggesting that we include this as an alternative [valid and equal] definition of the term, but simply point out in the second bullet of the usage section, the fact that some resources in English and written by English academicians use it too. I am not qualifying the usage per se (that is, I am not saying whether it is incorrect, misinformed, diplomatic or conscious), but qualifying its appearance on Academic English texts (e.g. "occasional").
With respect to MA and MesoAm, it is true that there are more references that imply that both terms could also be treated as synonymous in English. I simply wanted to point out that a particular definition of MA was derived implicitly. While it is logical and coherent (MA is, in fact, located at the mid-latitudes of the Americas), no source has explicitly stated that. I agree with you, the particulars of the MA debate are not the same as those of NA debate, and things that might be obvious for me might not be obvious for others. The point I was trying to make is that the implicit usage of the term was [or could be] good enough to include a sentence about its occasional usage in the article.
I really appreciate that you have contacted me via my Talk Page to discuss things further in an amicable way. --the Dúnadan 18:05, 27 March 2007 (UTC)