Talk:Working time
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[edit] POV
Well, there's a lot of POV in this article. Fewer people working longer hours can be discussed without using words like 'disturbing'.
Charles Matthews 09:33, 9 Oct 2004 (UTC)
[edit] Graphic source
What is the source for the working time hours graphic/data? "OECD" isn't precise enough. Rd232 10:51, 20 August 2005 (UTC)
[edit] Policy
Just a lurker here can someone please explain why This policy is controversial among economists. ~Thor
[edit] Overtime
It would be interesting to find out what states do double-time after 60 hours - I'm... familiar, I guess, with federal labor laws, but not so much with the specifics on every state. I know California has some pretty progressive labor laws, with double-time provisions, but I don't know what they are off hand. It'd be interesting to know how prevalent some of the more progressive laws (like double-time) are. Tel Janin 23:21, 27 September 2005 (UTC)
[edit] Random Thoughts
Just thinking... if the workers left the farmwork because work in the city was more regular, then the farmers were left without a workforce. Therefore the farmers must have been less productive. If the farmers were less productive, then to keep the same standard of living they would have had to raise their prices. However, the workers in the city had to buy their food now, but the prices had gone up and therefore the only option they had was to work longer hours to earn more money to pay for the food that they could have had either for free or at a reduced price or at the previous price, if they hadn't left the farm!
- Actually, due to mechanization and other technological advancements, far less human labor is required to produce the same amount of food as in the past. In terms of hours of human labor, food is a lot cheaper now than it used to be, whether you work on the farm or in the city. -- Beland 04:20, 2 April 2006 (UTC)
[edit] Underemployment?
Could somebody please explain this:
- When working time is too short, this represents underemployment of labor and human capital. Individuals within such a society will tend, therefore, to do less work than they are capable of, and may receive correspondingly low compensation.
If an individual is working less hours in one day, how does that lead to what seems to be described above as exhaustion and/or laziness, or something psychological? It just does not make sense, at least when explained in that way.
- I interpret the passage as saying that if people, on average, work fewer hours, they will, on average, earn less money. It does not have anything to do with laziness. -- Beland 05:04, 3 April 2006 (UTC)
- I re-worded this part of the article to make it clearer. -- Beland
[edit] Conflicting data
- In the United States, by contrast, working time has actually been increasing.
This claim does have a reference - a web page that cites another work. However, the data elsewhere on the page shows an average of 1949 hours per worker in 1987, and 1777 in 2004. This represents a decrease. This conflict needs to be resolved, either by changing the claim to say that working time in the U.S. is fluctuating rather than monotonically changing, or working on the references to get the original data or perhaps more data or more analysts' perspectives. -- Beland 06:07, 4 April 2006 (UTC)
- The Bureau of Labor Statistics says that the "AVERAGE WEEKLY HOURS OF PRODUCTION WORKERS" was between 38 and 39 in 1964 while in 2005 it was between 33 and 34. Certainly a decrease. See http://www.bls.gov/data/home.htm to pull up the data for yourself.--71.2.147.254 01:51, 9 July 2006 (UTC)
[edit] Working time in the antiquity?
It would be interesting if someone could find data about working time in the antique civilisations and in neolithicum. I have seen a statement that non-industrialised societies usually have much shorter working hours than we have in the industrialised world. Unfortunately I have given the book with that statement away, and I have forgotten both title and author. It was a German edition of an American or English study of time perception in different cultures. Could anyone help out there? Mlewan 14:47, 29 June 2006 (UTC)
[edit] Salaried Employees
The whole section about salaried employees not being eligible for overtime pay is incorrect. Whether an employee is salaried or not they are still eligible for overtime pay unless they are exempt under the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA). There are three exemptions: Executive, Administrative and Professional. Only those that fall under one of these exemptions will not receive overtime pay. Many salaried workers are not exempt from the FLSA and do in fact receive overtime pay. The burden of proof is on the employer to show that an employee is exempt from the FLSA and the burden is not easily met. Snikolao 05:26, 4 December 2006 (UTC) Shane
