Talk:Schur's inequality

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[edit] weakening the hypothesis

I think if we replace the phrase

"for all positive real numbers x, y, z and t,"

with

"for all nonnegative real numbers x, y, z and a positive number t,"

, the inequality is still true.

Or any counterexample?

Yes, you're correct, see Mathematical Excalibur, Vol 10, Number 5, Dec05 to Jan06, online version at http://www.math.ust.hk/mathematical_excalibur/ , further reference at the end of that article(Old and New Inequalities). --Lemontea 01:35, 26 March 2006 (UTC)