Talk:Multi-valued logic

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The fact that Aristotle didn't fully accept the law of the excluded middle doesn't seem to be mentioned in the Laws of thought article nor in the article on Lotfi Askar Zadeh. The difference between this article and those two are slightly confusing. The best I can gather is that Aristotle put forth the law of noncontradiction and the law of the excluded middle, but expressed in De Interpretatione that the law of the excluded middle could produce some problems. Perhaps somebody that knows this subject could tweak the wording in these articles to clarify things a tad. -Chira 21:39, 11 August 2005 (UTC)

I've tried to answer Chira's question (again.) Moved from article: (the law may originate from one of them, Chrysippus). Meaning what? He lived after Aristotle, and Aristotle's laws imply the law in question. Dan 23:05, 6 April 2006 (UTC)

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