Talk:French paradox
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[edit] French diet rich in saturated fats?
I'm pretty dubious about the truth behind the French diet being rich in saturated fats (comparatively to other Western countries). I suspect that this belief arises from the mistaken idea that typical French meals are like haute cuisine or cuisine bourgeoise, whereas they are generally less fatty. David.Monniaux 20:25, 26 May 2004 (UTC)
My understanding is that some regions of France have a diet very very rich in saturated fats -- I want to say the south of France, but I'm not sure. If I can think of it, I'll do some research (one of Jeffrey Steingarten's books has a section about the Paradox in which he mentions the regional angle). --Neschek 17:58, 22 Oct 2004 (UTC)
- Normandy (butter, cream) and the southwest (goose fat) come to mind. However, today, most people do not eat "traditional" heavy food that often. David.Monniaux 21:55, 31 August 2005 (UTC)
Certainly the South West, where goose fat is the primary fat, and the north where butter is dont really correspond to the "Meditterranean diet" of olive oil that was often assumed to be the cause of healthiness. But whether there is actually more fat than the British diet of chips is unclear... Justinc 19:28, 4 Nov 2004 (UTC)
[edit] Evidence?
Although per capita French consumption of wine (most of which is red) is decreasing, it still clearly remains among the highest in the world. Qualifying this fact with the word "purportedly" requires significant evidence to the contrary.
In addition, there is consensus in the medical community that saturated fat is a major factor in coronary heart disease. Summarily dismissing the French Paradox by refuting this fact requires much more than an undocumented assertion.David Justin 16:47, 2 January 2006 (UTC)
[edit] Sources?
This article needs more sources. Statements such as "Most researchers now believe that the most important ingredient is the alcohol itself." or "Other researchers believe it is the act of relaxing while drinking that causes longevity." are worthless without a source. Kickin' Da Speaker 17:39, 2 August 2006 (UTC)
[edit] fuzzy math
since when is 72 50% less than 108?
It isn't -- but 108 is 50% more than 72. I will try to reword this to make it clear. Motorneuron 00:22, 2 February 2006 (UTC)motorneuron
[edit] Category
Why is this under "philosophical paradoxes"? Roscelese 22:47, 10 June 2006 (UTC)