Talk:Faiz Ahmed Faiz

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I guess I just don't buy into pre-1947 British India being identified as "India". Sialkot was, if anything, in the British Indian Empire. Especially since India clearly is an entry on the Republic of India.

The point about the line/tradition of Ghalib, Iqbal, etc. is that a lot of students of the language and literature do overtly define a line; namely of one almost transcendent poet active at a time, with one being born and/or in his youth during the period of activity of the previous. It goes something like this: Faiz, Iqbal, Ghalib, Mir, Sauda (I think), Wali. Thus tradition, while appropriate doesn't provide a full picture. Though line might imply a direct link, familial or otherwise. I guess we will have to put a note on this topic at some point.--iFaqeer 04:29, Sep 15, 2004 (UTC)

Sialkot and all these places, all these states, were part of India for centuries before the British came to India. The have been under various rules... in Hindu, Buddhist, Mughal and British eras what's the common term to all? India. It's as simple as that. --LordSuryaofShropshire 18:08, Sep 15, 2004 (UTC)

Your latest edit (pre-indy indy) seems fine. --LordSuryaofShropshire 19:17, Sep 15, 2004 (UTC)

anti-semitic much? faiz was never in the running for a nobel...his poetry was brilliant but who knew him outside the muslim/indian worlds...the reason he never one would more likely be the absence of any decent european translations of his work and hardly the zionist element in the nobel committee...there were no Jews on it at that time.