Talk:Bernstein's theorem

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Is the statement correct? My gut feeling (without any experience of the theorem) is that cumulative probability distribution function is too restrictive; rather it should be with respect to a cumulative distribution function of a positive measure whose total measure is positive and finite, but not necessarily equal to 1? Dmharvey 19:55, 15 February 2006 (UTC)

I think you're right. I'll be back.... Michael Hardy 22:08, 15 February 2006 (UTC)